In most cases, no. Whether one spouse owned the home before filing is not the only issue, because this often turns on whether the home is considered marital property or separate property. Courts also recognize non-financial contributions (like homemaking, childcare, and supporting a spouse's career) as equally valuable, and they may also look at marital funds used to pay the mortgage or improve the home. The exception is if the home was purchased before the marriage or with inherited funds and kept entirely separate from marital finances, although appreciation during the marriage and commingling can affect whether it remains non marital property.